You’ve got to read this!

SueK’s comment on my comment that she was poking fun at Shakespeare Day on The Farm.

I dunno. Sounds like she knows an awful lot about the Bacon-Shakespeare issue to me!

The “Intellectuals” thing is here and it *is* funny.

Filed under “silliness.” 🙂

One Response

  1. Thinking more about this – which will, no doubt, get me into more trouble! – and wonder if the difference was the linguistic differences at one time period, merging into linguistic practices of a different time period. Then the latter language becoming a different language, although we theoretically consider it the same language today – which it isn’t.
    So…maybe Bacon spoke proper English for 1600 as did all of the nobility. But the common people were no longer speaking the proper English – so in order to write plays that would appeal to the common people, he had to write with common English – which would be unacceptable to his noble equals, which is why he might have used the nom de plume. Maybe. I wonder if he was financially successful with his plays…a big “producer” of the time. I have a doubt that he would have made any money writing for the royals! They didn’t pay for the privilege of entertaining them, I suspect. Maybe it was a way of dodging the income tax of the times??
    Our problem is also that we no longer speak the common English of 1600 (just using that date as an easy mid point) so to us, Shakespeare’s “common” English seems like it would be the language of nobles…certainly not of _our_ common people!
    We might be in the same boat if some remarkably talented person started writing books or plays in “texting” language! Which can be pretty incomprehensible!

    I definitely don’t know any answers…just thoughts that occurred to me while this whole thing rolled around in my head…!

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